Neet Biology Neet Biology 1 / 200 'Taxon' is the unite of a group of: Order Taxonomy Genus Species 2 / 200 The most important feature of all living systems is their capacity to: Produce gametes Utilize oxygen to generate energy Use solar energy for metabolic activities Replicate the genetic information 3 / 200 There is no life on moon due to the absence of: Ca Water Light Temperature 4 / 200 ICBN stands for : International Code of Botanical Nomenclature International Congress of Biological Names Indian Code of Botanical Nomenclature Indian Congress of Biological Names 5 / 200 Biological organization starts with: Cellular level Organismic level Atomic level Submicroscopic molecular level 6 / 200 The living organisms can be unexceptionally distinguished from the non-living things on the basis of their ability for: Interaction with the environment and progressive evolution Reproduction Growth and movement Responsiveness to touch 7 / 200 Differentiation of organs and tissues in developing organism, is associated with: Differential expression of genes Lethal mutations Deletion of genes Developmental mutations 8 / 200 Nomenclature is governed by certain universal rules. Which one of the following is contrary to the rules of nomenclature ? Biological names can be written in any language The first word in a biological name represents the genus name, and the second is a specific epithet The names are written in Latin and are italicised When written by hand, the names are to be underlined 9 / 200 Study the four statements (A-D) given below and select the two correct ones out of them: Definition of biological species was given by Ernst Mayr. Photoperiod does not affect reproduction in plants. Binomial nomenclature system was given by R.H. Whittaker. In unicellular organisms, reproduction is synonymous with growth. 10 / 200 Which of the following is against the rules of ICBN? Handwritten scientific names should be underlined Every species should have a generic name and a specific epithet Scientific names are in Latin and should be italicised Generic and specific names should be written starting with small letters 11 / 200 Which one of the following organisms is scientifically correctly named, correctly printed according to the International Rules of Nomenclature and correctly described ? E.coli-Full name Entamoeba coli, a commonly occurring bacterium in human intestine Musca domestica-The common house lizard, a reptile Plasmodium falciparum-A protozoan pathogen causing the most serious type of malaria Felis tigris-The Indian tiger, well protected in Gir forests 12 / 200 Match Column I with Column II for housefly classification and select the correct option using the codes given below: Family Order Class Phylum (i) Diptera (ii) Arthropoda (iii) Muscidae (iv) Insecta 13 / 200 Select the correctly written scientific name of mango which was first described by Carolus Linnaeus: Mangifera indica Linn Mangifera indica Mangifera Indica Mangifera indica Car Linn 14 / 200 Which one of the following belongs to the family Muscidae? House fly Fire fly Grasshopper Cockroach 15 / 200 In the taxonomic categories which hierarchical arrangement in ascending order is correct in case of animals? Kingdom, Order, Class, Phylum, Family, Genus, Species Kingdom, Order, Phylum, Class, Family, Genus, Species Kingdom, Phylum, Class, Order, Family, Genus, Species Kingdom, Class, Phylum, Family, Order, Genus, Species 16 / 200 The term "New Systematics"was introduced by: Linnaeus Bentham and Hocker Julian Huxley A.p.de Candolle 17 / 200 Linnaeus evolved a system of nomenclature called: Mononomial Vernacular Binomial Polynomial 18 / 200 A taxon is: A group of related families A group of related species A type of living organisms A taxonomic group of any ranking 19 / 200 A group of plants or animals with similar traits of any rank is: Species Genus Order Taxon 20 / 200 Linnaeus is credited with: Binomial nomenclature Theory of biogenesis Discovery of microscope Discovery of blood circulation 21 / 200 Static concept of species was put forward by: de Candolle Linnaeus Theophrastus Darwin 22 / 200 Basic unit or smallest taxon of taxonomy/ classification is: Species Kingdom Family Variety 23 / 200 The term phylum was given by: Cuvier Haeckel Theophrastus Linnaeus 24 / 200 Sequences of taxonomic categories is: Class-phylum-tribe-order-family Division-class-family-tribe-order-genus-species Division-class-order-family-tribe-genus-species Phylum-order-class-tribe-family-genus-species 25 / 200 Gorilla, chimpanzee, monkeys and human belong to the same: Species Genus Family Order 26 / 200 Which of the following are less general in characters as compared to genus? Species Division Class Family 27 / 200 Nicotiana sylvestris flowers only during long days and N. tabacum flowers only during short days. If raised in the laboratory under different photoperiods, they can be induced to flower at the same time and can be cross-fertilized to produce self-fertile offspring. What is the best reason for considering N. sylvestris and N. tabacum to be separate species? They are reproductively distinct They are physiologically distinct They are morphologically distinct They cannot interbreed in nature 28 / 200 Species are considered as : The lowest units of classification Artificial concept of human mind which cannot be defined in absolute terms Real units of classification devised by taxonomists Real basic units of classification 29 / 200 Which of the following is not true for a species? Members of a species can interbreed Variations occurs among members of a species Each species is reproductively isolated from every other species Gene flow does not occur between the populations of a species 30 / 200 Which one of the following animals is correctly matched with its particular named taxonomic category? Housefly-Musca, an order Tiger-tigris, the species Cuttlefish-Mollusca, a class Humans-Primata, the family 31 / 200 The book Genera Plantarum was written by: Hutchinson Bessey Engler and Prantl Bentham and Hooker 32 / 200 A system of classification in which a large number of traits are considered is : Phylogenetic system Artificial system Natural system Phenetic system 33 / 200 In the five kingdom system, the main basis of classification is: Structure of nucleus Nutrition Structure of cell wall Asexual reproduction 34 / 200 Biosystematics aims at : Delimiting various taxa of organisms and establishing their relationships The classification of organisms based on their evolutionary history and establishing their phylogeny on the totality of various parameters from all fields of studies Identification and arrangement of organisms on the basis of their cytological characteristics The classification of organisms based on broad morphological characters 35 / 200 Phenetic classification of organisms is based on: Observable characteristics of existing organisms The ancestral lineage of existing organisms Dendogram based on DNA characteristics Sexual characteristics 36 / 200 In the light of recent classification of living organisms into three domains of life (bacteria, archaea and eukarya), which one of the following statements is true about archaea? Archaea completely differ from prokaryotes Archaea resemble eukarya in all respects Archaea have some novel features that are absent in other prokaryotes and eukaryotes Archaea completely differ from both prokaryotes and eukaryotes 37 / 200 Phylogenetic system of classification is based on: Morphological features Chemical constituents Floral characters Evolutionary relationships 38 / 200 Five kingdom system of classification suggested by R.H. Whittaker is not based on: Mode of nutrition Complexity of body organization Presence or absence of a well defined nucleus Mode of reproduction 39 / 200 True nucleus is absent in: Volvox Anabaena Mucor Vaucheria 40 / 200 Pick up the wrong statement : Nuclear membrane is present in Monera Cell wall is absent in Animalia Protista have photosynthetic and heterotrophic modes of nutrition Some fungi are edible 41 / 200 Which one of the following statements is wrong? Cyanobacteria are also called blue-green algae Golden algae are also called desmids Eubacteria are also called false bacteria Phycomycetes are also called algal fungi 42 / 200 The primitive prokaryotes responsible for the production of biogas from the dung of ruminant animals, include the : Halophiles Thermoacidiophiles Methanogens Eubacteria 43 / 200 Methanogens belong to : Dinoflagellates Slime moulds Eubacteria Archaebacteria 44 / 200 Which of the following are found in extreme saline conditions? Archaebacteria Eubacteria Cyanobacteria Mycobacteria 45 / 200 Which among the following are the smallest living cells, known without a definite cell wall, pathogenic to plants as well as animals and can survive without oxygen? Bacillus Pseudomonas Mycoplasma Nostoc 46 / 200 Which among the following is not a prokaryote? Saccharomyces Mycobacterium Nostoc Oscillatoria 47 / 200 Match the organisms in Column I with habitats in Column II: Halophiles Thermoacidophiles Methanogens Cyanobacteria Hot springs Aquatic environment Guts of ruminants Salty area Check 48 / 200 Which of the following is incorrect about Cynobacteria? They have chlorophyll a similar to green plants They are photoautotrophs They lack heterocysts They often form blooms in polluted water bodies 49 / 200 Which of the following is a correct statement? Slime moulds are saprophytic organisms classified under kingdom Monera. Mycoplasma have DNA, Ribosome and cell wall. Cyanobacteria are a group of autotrophic organisms classified under kingdom Monera. Bacteria are exclusively heterotrophic organisms. 50 / 200 An important criterion of modern day classification is: Resemblances in morphology Anatomical and physiological traits Breeding habits Presence or absence of notochord 51 / 200 Azotobacter and Bacillus polymyxa are the example of: Pathogenic bacteria Decomposers Symbiotic N2 fixer Non-symbiotic N2 fixer 52 / 200 BGA (blue-green algae) are included in which of the following groups? Bryophytes Prokaryotes Protista Fungi 53 / 200 The hereditary material present in the bacterium E. coli is: Single-stranded DNA Double-stranded DNA DNA RNA 54 / 200 Indicator of water pollution: E. Coli Chlorella Beggiatoa Ulothrix 55 / 200 Transduction in bacteria carried out by: Bacteriophage B.G.A Mycoplasma Rickettsiae 56 / 200 Which of the following survives a temperature of 104°C to 106°C? Marine Archaebacteria Hot water spring thermophiles Seeds of angiosperms Eubacteria 57 / 200 According to five kingdom system, blue-green algae belongs to: Metaphyta Monera Protista Algae 58 / 200 Photosynthetic bacteria have pigments in: Chromoplasts Leucoplasts Chloroplasts Chromatophore 59 / 200 Many scientists consider viruses as living entities because these : Respire Can cause diseases Reproduce Respond to environment 60 / 200 Difference in Gram positive and Gram negative bacteria is due to difference in their: Cell wall Cell membrane Ribosome Cytoplasm 61 / 200 What is true for Archaebacteria? All are halophilic All are photosynthetic All are fossils All are oldest living organisms on earth 62 / 200 What is true for cyanobacteria? Oxygenic with nitrogenase Oxygenic without nitrogenase Non-oxygenic with nitrogenase Non-oxygenic without nitrogenase 63 / 200 Which bacteria are utilized in gobar gas plant? Methanogens Nitrifying bacteria Ammonifying bacteria Denitrifying bacteria 64 / 200 In bacteria, plasmid is : Extrachromosomal material Chromosomal DNA Non-functional DNA Repetetive gene 65 / 200 Which statement is correct for bacterial transduction? Transfer of genes from one bacteria to another bacteria through virus Transfer of genes from one bacteria to another bacteria by conjugation Bacteria obtain its DNA directly from mother cell Bacteria obtain DNA from other external source 66 / 200 Transformation experiment was first performed on which bacteria? E. coli Diplococcus pneumoniae Salmonella Pasteurella pestis 67 / 200 Chromosomes in a bacterial cell can be 1-3 in number and: Are always linear Can be either circular or linear, but never both within the same cell Can be circular as well as linear within the same cell Are always circular 68 / 200 Which one of the following bacteria has found extensive use in genetic engineering work in plants? Xanthomonas citri Bacillus coagulens Agrobacterium tumefaciens Clostridium septicum 69 / 200 In which kingdom would you classify the archaea and nitrogen-fixing organisms, if the five-kingdom system of classification is used? Fungi Protista Monera Plantae 70 / 200 Cellular totipotency is demonstrated by: All plant cells All eukaryotic cells Only bacterial cells Only gymnosperm cells 71 / 200 Barophilic prokaryotes : Grow slowly in highly alkaline frozen lakes at high altitudes Occur in water containing high concentrations of barium hydroxide Grow and multiply in very deep marine sediments Readily grown and divides in sea water enriched in any soluble salt of barium 72 / 200 The bacterium (Clostridium botulinum) that causes botulism is: A facultative anaerobe An obligate anaerobe A facultative aerobe An obligate aerobe 73 / 200 Which one of the following statements about mycoplasma is wrong? They are pleomorphic They are in sensitive to penicillin They cause diseases in plants They are also called PPLO 74 / 200 Thermococcus, Methanococcus and Methanobacterium exemplify: Bacteria that contain a cytoskeleton and ribosomes Archaebacteria that contain protein homologous to eukaryotic core histones Archaebacteria that lack any histones resembling those found in eukaryotes but whose DNA is negatively supercoiled Bacteria whose DNA is relaxed or positively supercoiled but which have a cytoskeleton as well as mitochondria 75 / 200 Some hyperthermophilic organisms that grow in highly acidic (pH 2) habitats belong to the two groups: Eubacteria and archaea Cyanobacteria and diatoms Protists and mosses Liverworts and yeasts 76 / 200 Which one of the following organisms is not an example of eukaryotic cells ? Amoeba proteus Paramecium caudatum Escherichia coli Euglena viridis 77 / 200 The cyanobacteria are also referred to as: Slime moulds Blue green algae Protists Golden algae 78 / 200 Which of the following are likely to be present in deep sea water? Archaebacteria Eubacteria Blue-green algae Saprophytic fungi 79 / 200 Archaebacteria differ from Eubacteria in: Cell shape Mode of reproduction Cell membrane structure Mode of nutrition 80 / 200 In which group of organisms the cell wall form two thin overlapping shells which fit together? Slime moulds Chrysophytes Euglenoids Dinoflagellates 81 / 200 Which one of the following may require pollinators, but is genetically similar to autogamy? Cleistogamy Geitonogamy Xenogamy Apogamy 82 / 200 Which one of the following statements is not true? Honey is made by bees by digesting pollen collected from flowers Pollen grains are rich in nutrients, and they are used in the form of tablets and syrups Pollen grains of some plants cause severe allergies and bronchial afflictions in some people The flowers pollinated by flies and bats secrete foul odour to attract them 83 / 200 The hilum is a scar on the : Seed, where micropyle was present Seed, where funicle was attached Fruit, where it was attached to pedicel Fruit, where style was present 84 / 200 Which of the following are the important flora rewards to the animal pollinators? Protein pellicle and stigmatic exudates Colour and large size of flower Nectar and pollen grains Floral fragrance and calcium crystals 85 / 200 Transmission tissue is characteristic feature of: Solid style Dry stigma Wet stigma Hollow style 86 / 200 Male gametophyte in angiosperms produces: Three sperms Two sperms and a vegetative cell Single sperm and a vegetative cell Single sperm and two vegetative cells 87 / 200 Filiform apparatus is characteristic feature of : Synergids Generative cell Nucellar embryo Aleurone cell 88 / 200 In angiosperms, microsporogenesis and megasporo- genesis: Occur in ovule Occur in anther Form gametes without furthers divisions Involve meiosis 89 / 200 Flowers are unisexual in : Onion Pea Cucumber China rose 90 / 200 Proximal end of the filament of stamen is attached to the : Anther Connective Placenta Thalamus or petal 91 / 200 Which one of the following statements is not true ? Tapetum helps in the dehiscence of anther Exine of pollen grains is made up of sporopollenin Pollen grains of many species cause severe allergies Stored pollen in liquid nitrogen can be used in the crop breeding programmes 92 / 200 Which of the following statements is not correct? Pollen grains of many species can germinate on the stigma of a flower, but only one pollen tube of the same species grows into the style. Insects that consume pollen or nectar without bringing about pollination are called pollen/nectar robbers. Pollen germination and pollen tube growth are regulated by chemical components of pollen interacting with those of the pistil. Some reptiles have also been reported as pollinators in some plant species. 93 / 200 In majority of angiosperms: Reduction division occurs in the megaspore mother cells A small central cell is present in the embryo sac Egg has a filiform apparatus There are numerous antipodal cells 94 / 200 Pollination in water hyacinth and water lily is brought about by the agency of: Birds Bats Water Insects or wind 95 / 200 The ovule of an angiosperm is technically equivalent to : Megaspore mother cell Megaspore Megasporangium Megasporophyll 96 / 200 A diocious flowering plant prevents both : Autogamy and Xenogamy Autogamy and Geitonogamy Geitonogamy and Xenogamy Cleistogamy and Xenogamy 97 / 200 Functional megaspore in an angiosperm develops into: Ovule Endosperm Embryo sac Embryo 98 / 200 Attractants and reward are required for : Anemophily Entomophily Hydrophily Cleistogamy 99 / 200 Flowers which have single ovule in the ovary and are packed into inflorescence are usually pollinated by: Water Bee Wind Bat 100 / 200 Which of the following has proved helpful in preserving pollen as fossils? Pollen Kitt Cellulosic intine Oil content Sporopollenin 101 / 200 Which is the most common type of embryo sac in angiosperms? Tetrasporic with one mitotic stage of divisions Monosporic with three sequential mitotic divisions Monosporic with two sequential mitotic divisions Bisporic with two sequential mitotic divisions 102 / 200 What type of pollination takes place in Vallisneria? Pollination occurs in submerged condition by water Flowers emerge above surface of water and pollination occurs by insects Flowers emerge above water surface and pollen is carried by wind Male flowers are carried by water currents to female flowers at the surface of water 103 / 200 In which of the following both autogamy and geitonogamy are prevented? Wheat Papaya Castor Maize 104 / 200 The body of the ovule is fused within the funicle at: Micropyle Nucellus Chalaza Hilum 105 / 200 In water hyacinth and place by: water lily, pollination takes place by Water currents only Wind and water Insects and water Insects or wind 106 / 200 The plant parts which consist of two generations one within the other: (1) Pollen grains inside the anther (2) Germinated pollen grain with two male gametes (3) Seed inside the fruit (4) Embryo sac inside the ovule (1), (2) and (3) (3) and (4) (1) and (4) (1) only 107 / 200 Which of the following is incorrect for wind-pollinated plants ? Pollen grains are light and non-sticky Well exposed stamens and stigma Many ovules in each ovary Flowers are small and not brightly coloured 108 / 200 The term used for transfer of pollen grains from anthers of one plant to stigma of a different plant which, during pollination, brings genetically different types of pollen grains to stigma is: Cleistogamy Xenogamy Geitonogamy Chasmogamy 109 / 200 A typical angiosperm embryo sac at maturity is : 8-nucleate and 8-celled 8-nucleate and 7-celled 7-nucleate and 8-celled 7-nucleate and 7-celled 110 / 200 Given below are two statements : Statement-I: Cleistogamous flowers are invariably autogamous. Statement-II: Cleistogamy is disadvantageous as there is no chance for cross pollination. In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below: Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect. Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are incorrect. 111 / 200 Identify the incorrect statement related to pollination. Flowers produce foul odours to attract flies and beetles to get pollinated. Moths and butterflies are the most dominant pollinating agents among insects. Pollination by water is quite rare in flowering plants. Pollination by wind is more common amongst abiotic pollination. 112 / 200 What is the function of tassels in the corn cob? To attract insects To trap pollen grains To disperse pollen grains To protect seeds 113 / 200 Large, colourful, fragrant flowers with nectar are seen in : Insect pollinated plants Bird pollinated plants Bat pollinated plants Wind pollinated plants 114 / 200 Identify the correct description about the given figure: Cleistogamous flowers showing autogamy. Compact inflorescence showing complete autogamy Wind pollinated plant inflorescence showing flowers with well exposed stamens. Water pollinated flowers showing stamens with mucilaginous covering. 115 / 200 Identify the set of correct statements: The flowers of Vallisneria are colourful and produce nectar. The flowers of waterlily are not pollinated by water. In most of water-pollinated species, the pollen grains are protected from wetting. Pollen grains of some hydrophytes are long and ribbon like. In some hydrophytes, the pollen grains are carried passively inside water. Choose the correct answer from the options given below. A, C, D and E only B, C, D and E only C, D and E only A, B, C and D only 116 / 200 Which one of the following has an open circulatory system? Pheretima Periplaneta Hirudinaria Octopus 117 / 200 Which one of the following groups of animals is bilaterally symmetrical and triploblastic? Aschelminthes (round worms) Ctenophores Sponges Coelenterates (Cnidarians) 118 / 200 One example of animals having a single opening to the outside that serves both as mouth as well as anus is: Octopus Asterias Ascidia Fasciola 119 / 200 Which one of the following kinds of animals are triploblastic ? Flat worms Sponges Ctenophores Corals 120 / 200 Which one of the following statements about certain given animals is correct? Round worms (Aschelminthes) are pseudocoelomates Molluscs are acoelomates Insects are pseudocoelomates Flat worms (Platyhelminthes) are coelomates 121 / 200 The figure shows four animals A, B, C and D. Select the correct answer with respect to a common characteristics of two of these animals. C and D have a true coelom A and D respire mainly through body wall B and C show radial symmetry A and B have cnidoblasts for self defence 122 / 200 Read the following statements: (1) Metagenesis is observed in Helminths. (2) Echinoderms are triploblastic and coelomate animals. (3) Round worms have organ-system level of body organization. (4) Comb plates present in ctenophores help in digestion. (5) Water vascular system is characteristic of Echinoderms. Choose the correct answer from the options given below. (2), (3) and 5 are correct (3), (4) and 5 are correct (1), (2) and 3 are correct (1), (4) and 5 are correct 123 / 200 Match List-I with List-II: List-I List-II (A) Metamerism (i) Coelenterata (B) Canal system (ii) Ctenophora (C) Comb plates (iii) Annelida (D) Cnidoblasts (iv) Porifera Choose the correct answer from the options given below: iv i ii iii iv iii i ii iii iv i ii iii iv ii i 124 / 200 Radial symmetry is NOT found in adults of phylum Ctenophora Hemichordata Coelenterata Echinodermata 125 / 200 Consider the following statements: Annelids are true coelomates Poriferans are pseudocoelomates Aschelminthes are acoelomates Platyhelminthes are pseudocoelomates Choose the correct answer from the options given below: C only D only B only A only 126 / 200 Phycoerythrin is the major pigment in : Brown algae Red algae Blue-green algae Green algae 127 / 200 Which of the following algae produce carrageen ? Blue-green algae Green algae Brown algae Red algae 128 / 200 Which of the following algae contains mannitol as reserve food material? Ulothrix Ectocarpus Gracilaria Volvox 129 / 200 Which of the following is incorrectly matched? Porphyra - Floridian Starch Volvox Starch Ectocarpus - Fucoxanthin Ulothrix-Mannitol 130 / 200 Hydrocolloid carrageen is obtained from: Rhodophyceae only Phaeophyceae only Chlorophyceae and Phaeophyceae Phaeophyceae and Rhodophyceae 131 / 200 Read the following statements and choose the set of correct statements: In the members of Phaeophyceae, Asexual reproduction occurs usually by biflagellate zoospores. Sexual reproduction is by oogamous method only. Stored food is in the form of carbohydrates which is either mannitol or laminarin. The major pigments found are chlorophyll a, c and carotenoids and xanthophyll. Vegetative cells have a cellulosic wall, usually covered on the outside by gelatinous coating of algin. Choose the correct answer from the options given below: A, C, D and E only A, B, C and E only A, B, C and D only B, C, D and E only 132 / 200 Classification given by Bentham and Hooker is : Artificial Natural Phylogenetic Numerical 133 / 200 Artifical system of classification was first used by: Linnaeus de Candolle Pliny the Edler Bentham and Hooker 134 / 200 System of classification used by Linnaeus are: Natural system Artificial system Asexual system Phylogenetic system 135 / 200 Phylogenetic classification is one which is based on: Overall similarities Utilitarian system Habits of plants Common evolutionary descent 136 / 200 Seminal plasma in humans is rich in : Fructose and calcium but has no enzyme Glucose and certain enzymes but has no calcium Fructose and certain enzymes but poor calcium Fructose, calcium and certain enzymes 137 / 200 Vasa efferentia are the ductules leading from: Testicular lobules to rete testis Rete testis to vas deferens Vas deferens to epididymis Epididymis to urethra 138 / 200 Seminal plasma in human males is rich in : Fructose and calcium Glucose and calcium DNA and testosterone Ribose and potassium 139 / 200 Secretions from which one of the following are rich in fructose, calcium and some enzymes? Male accessory glands Liver Pancreas Salivary glands 140 / 200 If for some reason, the vasa efferentia in the human reproductive system get blocked, the gametes will not be transported from: Vagina to uterus Testes to epididymis Epididymis to vas deferens Ovary to uterus 141 / 200 The testes in humans are situated outside the abdominal cavity inside a pouch called scrotum. The purpose served is for: Providing a secondary sexual feature for exhibiting the male sex Maintaining the scrotal temperature lower than the internal body temperature Escaping any possible compression by the visceral organs Providing more space for the growth of epididymis 142 / 200 The Leydig cells as found in the human body are the secretory source of: Glucagon Androgens Progesterone Intestinal mucus 143 / 200 The shared terminal duct of the reproductive and urinary system in the human male is : Vas deferens Vasa efferentia Urethra Ureter 144 / 200 Which of the following depicts the correct pathway of transport of sperms? Rete testis, Vas deferens, Efferent ductules, Epididymis Efferent ductules, Rete testis, Vas deferens, Epididymis Rete testis, Efferent ductules, Epididymis, Vas deferens Rete testis, Epididymis, Efferent ductules, Vas deferens 145 / 200 Select the correct sequence for transport of sperm cells in male reproductive system: Seminiferous tubules Rete testis → Vasa efferentia Epididymis Vas deferens → Ejaculatory duct Urethra Urethral meatus Seminiferous tubules Vasa efferentia → Epididymis→ Inguinal canal → Urethra Testis Epididymis Vasa efferentia → Vas deferens Ejaculatory duct Urethra Urethral meatus Inguinal canal → Testis → Epididymis Vasa efferentia Rete testis Inguinal canal → Urethra 146 / 200 Which of the following is not a natural/traditional contraceptive method? Lactational amenorrhea Vaults Coitus interruptus Periodic abstinence 147 / 200 Match List I with List II : List I List II Non-medicated IUD I. Multiload 375 Copper releasing IUD II. Progestogens Hormone releasing IUD III. Lippes loop Implants IV. LNG-20 Choose the correct answer from the options given below: A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II A-III, B-I, C-II, D-IV A-I, B-III, C-IV, D-II 148 / 200 In India's human population is heavily weighed towards the younger age group as a result of: Short life span of many individuals and high birth rate Long life span of many individuals and high birth rate Short life span of many individuals and low birth rate Long life span of many individuals and low birth low rate 149 / 200 Foetal sex can be determined by examining cells from the amniotic fluid by looking for: Chiasmata Kinetochore Barr bodies Autosomes 150 / 200 The present population of the world is about: 15 trillion 6 billion 500 million 100 million 151 / 200 The permissible use of the technique amniocentesis is for: Detecting sex of the unborn foetus Artificial insemination Transfer of embryo into the uterus of a surrogate mother Detecting any genetic abnormality 152 / 200 Which of the following cannot be detected in a developing foetus by amniocentesis ? Klinefelter's syndrome Sex of the foetus Down syndrome Jaundice 153 / 200 In context of amniocentesis, which of the following statement is incorrect? It is usually done when a woman is between 14-16 weeks pregnant It is used for prenatal sex determination It can be used for detection of down syndrome It can be used for detection of cleft palate 154 / 200 In a growing population of country : Pre-reproductive individuals are more than the reproductive individuals Reproductive individuals are less than the post reproductive individuals Reproductive and pre-reproductive individuals are equal in number Pre-reproductive individuals are less than the reproductive individuals 155 / 200 Given below are two statements: One is labelled as Assertion (A) and other is labelled as Reason (R). Assertion (A): Amniocentesis for sex determination is one of the strategies of Reproductive and Child Health Care Programme. Reason (R): Ban on amniocentesis checks increasing menace of female feticide. In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below. Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is NOT the correct explanation of (A) (A) is true but (R) is false (A) is false but (R) is true 156 / 200 Purines found both in DNA and RNA are : Adenine and Guanine Guanine and Cytosine Cytosine and Thymine Adenine and Thymine 157 / 200 If the distance between two consecutive base pairs is 0.34 nm and the total number of base pairs of a DNA double helix in a typical mammalian cell is , then the length of the DNA is approximately: 2.5 meters 2.2 meters 2.7 meters 2.0 meters 158 / 200 Which of the following statements is correct? Adenine pairs with thymine through one H-bond Adenine pairs with thymine through three H-bonds Adenine does not pair with thymine Adenine pairs with thymine through two H-bonds 159 / 200 In the polynucleotide chain of DNA, a nitrogenous base is linked to the -OH of: 1'C pentose sugar 2'C pentose sugar 3'C pentose sugar 5'C pentose sugar 160 / 200 The term 'Nuclein' for the genetic material was used by: Mendel Franklin Meischer Chargaff 161 / 200 If Adenine makes 30% of the DNA molecule, what will be the percentage of Thymine, Guanine and Cytosine in it? T:20; G:25; C: 25 T: 20; G:30; C: 30 T: 20; G: 20: C: 30 T: 30: G: 20; C: 20 162 / 200 Which one of the following statements about Histones is wrong? Histones carry positive charge in the side chain Histones are organized to form a unit of 8 molecule The pH of histones is slightly acidic Histones are rich in amino acids-Lysine and Arginine 163 / 200 Identify the correct statement : Split gene arrangement is characteristic of prokaryotes. In capping, methyl guanosine triphosphate is added to the 3' end of hnRNA. RNA polymerase binds with Rho factor to terminate the process of transcription in bacteria. The coding strand in a transcription unit is copied to an mRNA. 164 / 200 If the length of a DNA molecule is 1.1 metres, what will be the approximate number of base pairs ? (a) (b) (c) (d) 165 / 200 Given below are two statements: Statement I: In prokaryotes, the positively charged DNA is held with some negatively charged proteins in a region called nucleoid. Statement II: In eukaryotes, the negatively charged DNA is wrapped around the positively charged histone octamer to form nucleosome. In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below: Both Statement I and Statement II are true Both Statement I and Statement II are false Statement I is correct but Statement II is false Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is true 166 / 200 Which one from those given below is the period for Mendel's hybridization experiments ? 1856-1863 1840-1850 1857-1869 1870-1877 167 / 200 Among the following characters, which one was not considered by mendel in his experiments on pea? Stem Tall or Dwarf Trichomes - Glandular or non-glandular Seed Green or Yellow Pod-Inflated or Constricted 168 / 200 How many true breeding pea plant varieties did Mendel select as pairs, which were similar except in one character with contrasting traits? 2 14 8 10 169 / 200 The number of contrasting characters studied by Mendel for his experiments was: 7 14 4 2 170 / 200 Given below are two statements : Statement-I : Mendel studied seven pairs of contrasting traits in pea plants and proposed the Laws of Inheritance. Statement-II: Seven characters examined by Mendel in his experiment on pea plants were seed shape and colour, flower colour, pod shape and colour, flower position and stem height. In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below: Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct Both Statement-I and Statement-II are incorrect 171 / 200 (A) (B) (C) (D) (E) Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below : C and B only D and E only A only B only 172 / 200 Which one of the following can be explained on the basis of Mendel's Law of Dominance? Out of one pair of factors one is dominant and the other is recessive. Factors occur in pairs in normal diploid plants. The discrete unit controlling a particular character is called factor. The expression of only one of the parental characters is found in a monohybrid cross Choose the correct answer from the options given below: B, C and D only A, B, C, D and E A, B and C only A, C, D and E only 173 / 200 Match List I with List II List I List II Two or more alternative forms of a gene I. Back cross Cross of F₁ progeny with homozygous recessive parent II. Ploidy Cross of F₁ progeny with any of the parents III. Allele Number of chromosome sets in plant IV. Test cross Choose the correct answer from the options given below: A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV A-II, B-I, C-III, D-IV 174 / 200 A pink flowered Snapdragon plant was crossed with a red flowered Snapdragon plant. What type of phenotype/s is/are expected in the progeny? Only pink flowered plants Red, pink as well as white flowered plants Only red flowered plants Red flowered as well as pink flowered plants 175 / 200 In a plant, black seed color (BB/Bb) is dominant over white seed color (bb). In order to find out the genotype of the black seed plant, with which of the following genotype will you cross it? Bb BB/Bb BB bb 176 / 200 Which of the following sets of diseases is caused by bacteria ? Tetanus and mumps Herpes and influenza Cholera and tetanus Typhoid and smallpox 177 / 200 In which disease does mosquito transmitted pathogen cause chronic inflammation of lymphatic vessels? Elephantiasis Ascariasis Ringworm disease Amoebiasis 178 / 200 Identify the correct pair representing the causative agent of typhoid fever and the confirmatory test for typhoid. Streptococcus pneumoniae / Widal test Salmonella typhi / Anthrone test Salmonella typhi / Widal test Plasmodium vivax / UTI test 179 / 200 The infectious stage of Plasmodium that enters the human body is : Sporozoites Female gametocytes Male gametocytes Trophozoites 180 / 200 Match List-I with List-II: List - I List - II (A) Filariasis (i) Haemophilus influenzae (B) Amoebiasis (ii) Trichophyton (C) Pneumonia (iii) Wuchereria bancrofti (D) Ringworm (iv) Entamoeba histolytica Choose the correct answer from the options given below: (A) - (ii) ; (B) - (iii) ; (C) - (i) ; (D) - (iv) (A) - (iv) ; (B) - (i) ; (C) - (iii) ; (D) - (ii) (A) - (iii) ; (B) - (iv) ; (C) - (i) ; (D) - (ii) (A) - (i) ; (B) - (ii) ; (C) - (iv) ; (D) - (iii) 181 / 200 Match the following columns and select the correct option: Column - I Column - II (A) Typhoid (i) Haemophilus influenzae (B) Malaria (ii) Wuchereria bancrofti (C) Pneumonia (iii) Plasmodium vivax (D) Filariasis (iv) Salmonella typhi Codes: (A) - (i) ; (B) - (ii) ; (C) - (iv) ; (D) - (iii) (A ) - (iv) ; (B) - (iii) ; (C) - (i) ; (D) - (ii) (A) - (iii) ; (B) - (iv) ; (C) - (ii) ; (D) - (i) (A) - (i) ; (B) - (iii) ; (C) - (ii) ; (D) - (iv) 182 / 200 Given below are two statements: Statement I: RNA mutates at a faster rate. Statement II: Viruses having RNA genome and shorter life span mutate and evolve faster. In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below: Both Statement I and Statement II are true. Both Statement I and Statement II are false. Statement I is true but Statement II is false. Statement I is false but Statement II is true. 183 / 200 Match List I with List II List I List II A. Ringworm B. Filariasis C. Malaria D. Pneumonia I. Haemophilus influenzae II. Trichophyton III. Wuchereria bancrofti IV. Plasmodium vivax Choose the correct answer from the options given below: A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I A-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV А-III, В-II, С-I, D-IV A-III, B-II, C-IV, D-I 184 / 200 Match List I with List II : List I List II A. Common cold B. Haemozoin C. Widal test D. Allergy I. Plasmodium II. Typhoid III. Rhinoviruses IV. Dust mites Choose the correct answer from the options given below: A-III, В-I, C-II, D-IV A-IV, B-II, C-III, D-I A-II, B-IV, C-III, D-I A-I, B-III, С-II, D-IV 185 / 200 Match List I with List II List I List II A. Typhoid B. Leishmaniasis C. Ringworm D. Filariasis I. Fungus II. Nematode III. Protozoa IV. Bacteria Choose the correct answer from the options given below: A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II A-II, B-IV, C-III, D-I A-I, B-III, C-II, D-IV A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II 186 / 200 According to Oparin, which one of the following was not present in the primitive atmosphere of the earth? Methane Oxygen Hydrogen Water vapour 187 / 200 Which one of the following experiments suggests that simplest living organisms could not have originated spontaneously from non-living matter? Microbes did not appear in stored meat Larvae could appear in decaying organic matter Microbes appeared from unsterilized organic matter Meat was not spoiled, when heated and kept sealed in a vessel 188 / 200 An important evidence in favour of organic evolution is the occurrence of: Homologous and vestigial organs Analogous and vestigial organs Homologous organs only Homologous and analogous organs 189 / 200 The concept of chemical evolution is based on: Interaction of water, air and clay under intense heat Effect of solar radiation on chemicals Possible origin of life by combination of chemicals under suitable environmental conditions Crystallization of chemicals 190 / 200 Which one of the following scientist's name is correctly matched with the theory put fourth by him? Mendel — Theory of pangenesis Weismann — Theory of continuity of germplasm Pasteur — Inheritance of acquired characters deVries — Natural selection 191 / 200 Which one of the following is incorrect about the characteristics of protobionts (coacervates and microspheres) as envisaged in the abiogenic origin of life ? They could maintain an internal environment They were able to reproduce They could separate combinations of molecules from the surroundings They were partially isolated from the surroundings 192 / 200 Following are the two statements regarding the origin of life : (A) The earliest organisms that appeared on the earth were non-green and presumably anaerobes. (B) The first autotrophic organisms were the chemoautotrophs that never released oxygen. Of the above statements which one of the following options is correct? (A) is correct but (B) is false (B) is correct but (A) is false Both (A) and (B) are correct Both (A) and (B) are false 193 / 200 Which of the following is the correct sequence of events in the origin of life? (1) Formation of protobionts (II) Synthesis of organic monomers (III) Synthesis of organic polymers (IV) Formation of DNA-based genetic systems Code: II, III, I, IV II, III, IV, I I, II, III, IV I, III, II, IV 194 / 200 From his experiments, S.L. Miller produced amino acids by mixing the following in a closed flask: (a) (b) (c) (d) 195 / 200 After about how many years of formation of earth, life appeared on this planet? 50 billion years 500 billion years 50 million years 500 million years 196 / 200 Infection of Ascaris usually occurs by: Drinking water containing eggs of Ascaris Eating imperfectly cooked port Tse-tse fly Mosquito bite 197 / 200 The active form of Entamoeba histolytica feeds upon : Blood only Erythrocytes; mucosa and sub mucosa of colon Mucosa and sub mucosa of colon only Food in intestine 198 / 200 Which of the following viruses is not transferred through semen of an infected male? Ebola virus Hepatitis B virus Human immunodeficiency virus Chikungunya virus 199 / 200 Match each disease with its correct type of vaccine : (A) Tuberculosis (i) harmless virus (B) Whooping cough (ii) inactivated toxin (C) Diphtheria (iii) killed bacteria (D) Polio (iv) harmless bacteria (i) (ii) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i) (iii) (iv) (iii) (ii) (iv) (i) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i) 200 / 200 Which of the following diseases is caused by a protozoan ? Blastomycosis Syphilis Influenza Babesiosis Your score isThe average score is 0%