Neet Biology

Neet Biology

1 / 200

'Taxon' is the unite of a group of:

2 / 200

The most important feature of all living systems is their capacity to:

3 / 200

There is no life on moon due to the absence of:

4 / 200

ICBN stands for :

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Biological organization starts with:

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The living organisms can be unexceptionally distinguished from the non-living things on the basis of their ability for:

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Differentiation of organs and tissues in developing organism, is associated with:

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Nomenclature is governed by certain universal rules. Which one of the following is contrary to the rules of nomenclature ?

9 / 200

Study the four statements (A-D) given below and select the two correct ones out of them:

10 / 200

Which of the following is against the rules of ICBN?

11 / 200

Which one of the following organisms is  scientifically correctly named, correctly printed according to the International Rules of  Nomenclature and correctly described ?

12 / 200

Match Column I with Column II for housefly classification and select the correct option using the codes given below:

13 / 200

Select the correctly written scientific name of mango which was first described by Carolus Linnaeus:

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Which one of the following belongs to the family Muscidae?

15 / 200

In the taxonomic categories which hierarchical arrangement in ascending order is correct in case of animals?

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The term "New Systematics"was introduced by:

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Linnaeus evolved a system of nomenclature called:

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A taxon is:

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A group of plants or animals with similar traits of any rank is:

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Linnaeus is credited with:

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Static concept of species was put forward by:

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Basic unit or smallest taxon of taxonomy/ classification is:

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The term phylum was given by:

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Sequences of taxonomic categories is:

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Gorilla, chimpanzee, monkeys and human belong to the same:

26 / 200

Which of the following are less general in characters as compared to genus?

27 / 200

Nicotiana sylvestris flowers only during long days and N. tabacum flowers only during short days. If raised in the laboratory under different photoperiods, they can be induced to flower at the same time and can be cross-fertilized to produce self-fertile offspring. What is the best reason for considering N. sylvestris and N. tabacum to be separate species?

28 / 200

Species are considered as :

29 / 200

Which of the following is not true for a species?

30 / 200

Which one of the following animals is correctly matched with its particular named taxonomic category?

31 / 200

The book Genera Plantarum was written by:

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A system of classification in which a large number of traits are considered is :

33 / 200

In the five kingdom system, the main basis of classification is:

34 / 200

Biosystematics aims at :

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Phenetic classification of organisms is based on:

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In the light of recent classification of living organisms into three domains of life (bacteria, archaea and eukarya), which one of the following statements is true about archaea?

37 / 200

Phylogenetic system of classification is based on:

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Five kingdom system of classification suggested by R.H. Whittaker is not based on:

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True nucleus is absent in:

40 / 200

Pick up the wrong statement :

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Which one of the following statements is wrong?

42 / 200

The primitive prokaryotes responsible for the production of biogas from the dung of ruminant animals, include the :

43 / 200

Methanogens belong to :

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Which of the following are found in extreme saline conditions?

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Which among the following are the smallest living cells, known without a definite cell wall, pathogenic to plants as well as animals and can survive without oxygen?

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Which among the following is not a prokaryote?

47 / 200

Match the organisms in Column I with habitats in Column II:

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Which of the following is incorrect about Cynobacteria?

49 / 200

Which of the following is a correct statement?

50 / 200

An important criterion of modern day classification is:

51 / 200

Azotobacter and Bacillus polymyxa are the example of:

52 / 200

BGA (blue-green algae) are included in which of the following groups?

53 / 200

The hereditary material present in the bacterium E. coli is:

54 / 200

Indicator of water pollution:

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Transduction in bacteria carried out by:

56 / 200

Which of the following survives a temperature of 104°C to 106°C?

57 / 200

According to five kingdom system, blue-green algae belongs to:

58 / 200

Photosynthetic bacteria have pigments in:

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Many scientists consider viruses as living entities because these :

60 / 200

Difference in Gram positive and Gram negative bacteria is due to difference in their:

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What is true for Archaebacteria?

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What is true for cyanobacteria?

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Which bacteria are utilized in gobar gas plant?

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In bacteria, plasmid is :

65 / 200

Which statement is correct for bacterial transduction?

66 / 200

Transformation experiment was first performed on which bacteria?

67 / 200

Chromosomes in a bacterial cell can be 1-3 in number and:

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Which one of the following bacteria has found extensive use in genetic engineering work in plants?

69 / 200

In which kingdom would you classify the archaea and nitrogen-fixing organisms, if the five-kingdom system of classification is used?

70 / 200

Cellular totipotency is demonstrated by:

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Barophilic prokaryotes :

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The bacterium (Clostridium botulinum) that causes botulism is:

73 / 200

Which one of the following statements about mycoplasma is wrong?

74 / 200

Thermococcus,  Methanococcus and  Methanobacterium exemplify:

75 / 200

Some hyperthermophilic organisms that grow in highly acidic (pH 2) habitats belong to the two groups:

76 / 200

Which one of the following organisms is not an example of eukaryotic cells ?

77 / 200

The cyanobacteria are also referred to as:

78 / 200

Which of the following are likely to be present in deep sea water?

79 / 200

Archaebacteria differ from Eubacteria in:

80 / 200

In which group of organisms the cell wall form two thin overlapping shells which fit together?

81 / 200

Which one of the following may require pollinators, but is genetically similar to autogamy?

82 / 200

Which one of the following statements is not true?

83 / 200

The hilum is a scar on the :

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Which of the following are the important flora rewards to the animal pollinators?

85 / 200

Transmission tissue is characteristic feature of:

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Male gametophyte in angiosperms produces:

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Filiform apparatus is characteristic feature of :

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In angiosperms, microsporogenesis and megasporo- genesis:

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Flowers are unisexual in :

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Proximal end of the filament of stamen is attached to the :

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Which one of the following statements is not true ?

92 / 200

Which of the following statements is not correct?

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In majority of angiosperms:

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Pollination in water hyacinth and water lily is brought about by the agency of:

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The ovule of an angiosperm is technically equivalent to :

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A diocious flowering plant prevents both :

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Functional megaspore in an angiosperm develops into:

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Attractants and reward are required for :

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Flowers which have single ovule in the ovary and are packed into inflorescence are usually pollinated by:

100 / 200

Which of the following has proved helpful in preserving pollen as fossils?

101 / 200

Which is the most common type of embryo sac in angiosperms?

102 / 200

What type of pollination takes place in Vallisneria?

103 / 200

In which of the following both autogamy and geitonogamy are prevented?

104 / 200

The body of the ovule is fused within the funicle at:

105 / 200

In water hyacinth and place by: water lily, pollination takes place by

106 / 200

The plant parts which consist of two generations one within the other:

(1) Pollen grains inside the anther

(2) Germinated pollen grain with two male gametes

(3) Seed inside the fruit

(4) Embryo sac inside the ovule

107 / 200

Which of the following is incorrect for wind-pollinated plants ?

108 / 200

The term used for transfer of pollen grains from anthers of one plant to stigma of a different plant which, during pollination, brings genetically different types of pollen grains to stigma is:

109 / 200

A typical angiosperm embryo sac at maturity is :

110 / 200

Given below are two statements :

Statement-I: Cleistogamous flowers are invariably autogamous.

Statement-II: Cleistogamy is disadvantageous as there is no chance for cross pollination.

In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

111 / 200

Identify the incorrect statement related to pollination.

112 / 200

What is the function of tassels in the corn cob?

113 / 200

Large, colourful, fragrant flowers with nectar are seen in :

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Identify the correct description about the given figure:

115 / 200

Identify the set of correct statements:

  1. The flowers of Vallisneria are colourful and produce nectar.
  2. The flowers of waterlily are not pollinated by water.
  3. In most of water-pollinated species, the pollen grains are protected from wetting.
  4. Pollen grains of some hydrophytes are long and ribbon like.
  5. In some hydrophytes, the pollen grains are carried passively inside water.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below.

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Which one of the following has an open circulatory system?

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Which one of the following groups of animals is bilaterally symmetrical and triploblastic?

118 / 200

One example of animals having a single opening to the outside that serves both as mouth as well as anus is:

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Which one of the following kinds of animals are triploblastic ?

120 / 200

Which one of the following statements about certain given animals is correct?

121 / 200

The figure shows four animals A, B, C and D. Select the correct answer with respect to a common characteristics of two of these animals.

122 / 200

Read the following statements:

(1) Metagenesis is observed in Helminths.

(2) Echinoderms are triploblastic and coelomate animals.

(3) Round worms have organ-system level of body organization.

(4) Comb plates present in ctenophores help in digestion.

(5) Water vascular system is characteristic of Echinoderms.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below.

123 / 200

Match List-I with List-II:

List-I                                               List-II

(A) Metamerism                        (i) Coelenterata

(B) Canal system                       (ii) Ctenophora

(C) Comb plates                        (iii) Annelida

(D) Cnidoblasts                         (iv) Porifera

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

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Radial symmetry is NOT found in adults of phylum

125 / 200

Consider the following statements:

  1. Annelids are true coelomates
  2. Poriferans are pseudocoelomates
  3. Aschelminthes are acoelomates
  4. Platyhelminthes are pseudocoelomates

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

126 / 200

Phycoerythrin is the major pigment in :

127 / 200

Which of the following algae produce carrageen ?

128 / 200

Which of the following algae contains mannitol as reserve food material?

129 / 200

Which of the following is incorrectly matched?

130 / 200

Hydrocolloid carrageen is obtained from:

131 / 200

Read the following statements and choose the set of correct statements:

In the members of Phaeophyceae,

  1. Asexual reproduction occurs usually by biflagellate zoospores.
  2. Sexual reproduction is by oogamous method only.
  3. Stored food is in the form of carbohydrates which is either mannitol or laminarin.
  4. The major pigments found are chlorophyll a, c and carotenoids and xanthophyll.
  5. Vegetative cells have a cellulosic wall, usually covered on the outside by gelatinous coating of algin.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

132 / 200

Classification given by Bentham and Hooker is :

133 / 200

Artifical system of classification was first used by:

134 / 200

System of classification used by Linnaeus are:

135 / 200

Phylogenetic classification is one which is based on:

136 / 200

Seminal plasma in humans is rich in :

137 / 200

Vasa efferentia are the ductules leading from:

138 / 200

Seminal plasma in human males is rich in :

139 / 200

Secretions from which one of the following are rich in fructose, calcium and some enzymes?

140 / 200

If for some reason, the vasa efferentia in the human reproductive system get blocked, the gametes will not be transported from:

141 / 200

The testes in humans are situated outside the abdominal cavity inside a pouch called scrotum.

The purpose served is for:

142 / 200

The Leydig cells as found in the human body are the secretory source of:

143 / 200

The shared terminal duct of the reproductive and urinary system in the human male is :

144 / 200

Which of the following depicts the correct pathway of transport of sperms?

145 / 200

Select the correct sequence for transport of sperm cells in male reproductive system:

146 / 200

Which of the following is not a natural/traditional contraceptive method?

147 / 200

Match List I with List II :

List I                                                      List II

  1. Non-medicated IUD              I. Multiload 375
  2. Copper releasing IUD           II. Progestogens
  3. Hormone releasing IUD       III. Lippes loop
  4. Implants                                   IV. LNG-20

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

148 / 200

In India's human population is heavily weighed towards the younger age group as a result of:

149 / 200

 Foetal sex can be determined by examining cells from the amniotic fluid by looking for:

150 / 200

The present population of the world is about:

151 / 200

The permissible use of the technique amniocentesis is for:

152 / 200

Which of the following cannot be detected in a developing foetus by amniocentesis ?

153 / 200

In context of amniocentesis, which of the following statement is incorrect?

154 / 200

In a growing population of country :

155 / 200

Given below are two statements: One is labelled as Assertion (A) and other is labelled as Reason (R).

Assertion (A): Amniocentesis for sex determination is one of the strategies of Reproductive and Child Health Care Programme.

Reason (R): Ban on amniocentesis checks increasing menace of female feticide.

In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below.

156 / 200

Purines found both in DNA and RNA are :

157 / 200

If the distance between two consecutive base pairs is 0.34 nm and the total number of base pairs of a DNA double helix in a typical mammalian cell is , then the length of the DNA is approximately:

158 / 200

Which of the following statements is correct?

159 / 200

In the polynucleotide chain of DNA, a nitrogenous base is linked to the -OH of:

160 / 200

The term 'Nuclein' for the genetic material was used by:

161 / 200

If Adenine makes 30% of the DNA molecule, what will be the percentage of Thymine, Guanine and Cytosine in it?

162 / 200

Which one of the following statements about Histones is wrong?

163 / 200

Identify the correct statement :

164 / 200

If the length of a DNA molecule is 1.1 metres, what will be the approximate number of base pairs ?

165 / 200

Given below are two statements:

Statement I: In prokaryotes, the positively charged DNA is held with some negatively charged proteins in a region called nucleoid.

Statement II: In eukaryotes, the negatively charged DNA is wrapped around the positively charged histone octamer to form nucleosome.

In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

166 / 200

Which one from those given below is the period for Mendel's hybridization experiments ?

167 / 200

Among the following characters, which one was not considered by mendel in his experiments on pea?

168 / 200

How many true breeding pea plant varieties did Mendel select as pairs, which were similar except in one character with contrasting traits?

169 / 200

The number of contrasting characters studied by Mendel for his experiments was:

170 / 200

Given below are two statements :

Statement-I : Mendel studied seven pairs of contrasting traits in pea plants and proposed the Laws of Inheritance.

Statement-II: Seven characters examined by Mendel in his experiment on pea plants were seed shape and colour, flower colour, pod shape and colour, flower position and stem height.

In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

171 / 200

(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)

Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :

172 / 200

Which one of the following can be explained on the basis of Mendel's Law of Dominance?

  1. Out of one pair of factors one is dominant and the other is recessive.
  2. Factors occur in pairs in normal diploid plants.
  3. The discrete unit controlling a particular character is called factor.
  4. The expression of only one of the parental characters is found in a monohybrid cross

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

173 / 200

Match List I with List II

         List I                                                                                                           List II

  1. Two or more alternative forms of a gene                                         I. Back cross
  2. Cross of F₁ progeny with homozygous recessive parent              II. Ploidy
  3. Cross of F₁ progeny with any of the parents                                  III. Allele
  4. Number of chromosome sets in plant                                             IV. Test cross

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

174 / 200

A pink flowered Snapdragon plant was crossed with a red flowered Snapdragon plant. What type of phenotype/s is/are expected in the progeny?

175 / 200

In a plant, black seed color (BB/Bb) is dominant over white seed color (bb). In order to find out the genotype of the black seed plant, with which of the following genotype will you cross it?

176 / 200

Which of the following sets of diseases is caused by bacteria ?

177 / 200

In which disease does mosquito transmitted pathogen cause chronic inflammation of lymphatic vessels?

178 / 200

Identify the correct pair representing the causative agent of typhoid fever and the confirmatory test for typhoid.

179 / 200

The infectious stage of Plasmodium that enters the human body is :

180 / 200

Match List-I with List-II:

 List - I                               List - II

(A) Filariasis                      (i) Haemophilus influenzae

(B) Amoebiasis                 (ii) Trichophyton

(C) Pneumonia                 (iii) Wuchereria bancrofti

(D) Ringworm                   (iv) Entamoeba histolytica

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

181 / 200

Match the following columns and select the correct option:

Column - I                              Column - II

(A) Typhoid                              (i) Haemophilus influenzae

(B) Malaria                               (ii) Wuchereria bancrofti

(C) Pneumonia                        (iii) Plasmodium vivax

(D) Filariasis                            (iv) Salmonella typhi

Codes:

182 / 200

Given below are two statements:

Statement I: RNA mutates at a faster rate.

Statement II: Viruses having RNA genome and shorter life span mutate and evolve faster.

In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

183 / 200

Match List I with List II

List I    List II
A. Ringworm

B. Filariasis

C. Malaria

D. Pneumonia

I. Haemophilus influenzae

II. Trichophyton

III. Wuchereria bancrofti

IV. Plasmodium vivax

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

184 / 200

Match List I with List II :

List I      List II
A. Common cold

B. Haemozoin

C. Widal test

D. Allergy

I. Plasmodium

II. Typhoid

III. Rhinoviruses

IV. Dust mites

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

185 / 200

Match List I with List II

List I      List II
A. Typhoid

B. Leishmaniasis

C. Ringworm

D. Filariasis

I. Fungus

II. Nematode

III. Protozoa

IV. Bacteria

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

186 / 200

According to Oparin, which one of the following was not present in the primitive atmosphere of the earth?

187 / 200

Which one of the following experiments suggests that simplest living organisms could not have originated spontaneously from non-living matter?

188 / 200

An important evidence in favour of organic evolution is the occurrence of:

189 / 200

The concept of chemical evolution is based on:

190 / 200

Which one of the following scientist's name is correctly matched with the theory put fourth by him?

191 / 200

Which one of the following is incorrect about the characteristics of protobionts (coacervates and microspheres) as envisaged in the abiogenic origin of life ?

192 / 200

Following are the two statements regarding the origin of life :

(A) The earliest organisms that appeared on the earth were non-green and presumably anaerobes.

(B) The first autotrophic organisms were the chemoautotrophs that never released oxygen.

Of the above statements which one of the following options is correct?

193 / 200

Which of the following is the correct sequence of events in the origin of life?

(1) Formation of protobionts

(II) Synthesis of organic monomers

(III) Synthesis of organic polymers

(IV) Formation of DNA-based genetic systems

Code:

194 / 200

From his experiments, S.L. Miller produced amino acids by mixing the following in a closed flask:

195 / 200

After about how many years of formation of earth, life appeared on this planet?

196 / 200

Infection of Ascaris usually occurs by:

197 / 200

The active form of Entamoeba histolytica feeds upon :

198 / 200

Which of the following viruses is not transferred through semen of an infected male?

199 / 200

Match each disease with its correct type of vaccine :

(A) Tuberculosis                        (i) harmless virus

(B) Whooping cough                 (ii) inactivated toxin

(C) Diphtheria                           (iii) killed bacteria

(D) Polio                                   (iv) harmless bacteria

200 / 200

Which of the following diseases is caused by a protozoan ?

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